What is means by GSM BURST and its types

GSM BURST

As we know that GSM network uses time slot to transmit information and Burst is a type of information that contains in particular time slot of GSM network. Bursts are designed to fit in these time slots to transmit information. GSM consist of five bursts which are
  1. Normal Burst 
  2. Synchronization Burst 
  3. Frequency Correction Burst 
  4. Access Burst
  5. Dummy Burst

1. Normal Burst

Gsm-Normal-Burst
Gsm Normal Burst

Typical burst contains 114 bit of valuable information and divided into two groups 57 bits each. These bits contain signaling and user data.
Stealing flag helps to indicate special events like Handovers etc. It also helps to verify that whether the block contains data or is stolen.
Tail bits found at the start and end of data. It is used as a guard time. Tail bit are three (3) in number and set to zero and placed at the beginning and at the end of a burst.
The Guard Period (GP) helps in to avoid overlapping with other bursts that may carry some other information. The length of the Guard Period is 8.25 bits.
Training sequence has a length of 26 bits and is used to synchronizes the receivers, hence this effects multipath propagation. The Training sequence helps in adapting the receiver parameters to the current path propagation.

2. Synchronization Burst:

gsm-synchronization-burst
GSM Synchronization Burst

As its name suggests, this burst is used to synchronize Mobile Station
and BTS using a synchronization channel (SCH). The function of both Tail and Guard bit same as mention above in Normal Burst.
Coded Data tells about TDMA frame number.
Training sequence tells about base station number.
Mobile Station at first demodulates synchronization burst that's why the length is 64 bits. it helps to avoid Larger multipath delay spreads.

3. Frequency Correction Burst

Frequency-Correction-Burst
Frequency Correction Burst

The most simple format of all the bursts is used for the frequency correction burst, which is transmitted only in the frequency correction channel (FCCH).
All 148 bits are coded with zeros and frequency which is a pure sine wave (GMSK modulator Produce sine wave) is transmitted that enable mobile to synchronize its frequency with the master frequency.
Frequency correction burst appears on frequency correction channel.

4. Random Access Burst:

Random-Access-Burst
Random Access Burst

Random Access Burst have a unique format as compare to others because of its special task. When first switched on, A mobile station (MS) uses the access burst for initial access to a BTS. The first job is to synchronize itself with BTS in frequency and time using synchronization burst.
Burst has a length of 88 bits plus 68.25 guard bits. The access burst length is set large because to make it possible that access burst appears at the BTS. It can be increased more by adding a guard band of 68.25.

5. Dummy Burst:

GSM-Dummy-Burst
GSM Dummy Burst
Dummy burst contains no user data information. Dummy is used to fill out idle time slots on the channel when a user is not sending any data. Dummy burst sent by the base station on the base channel. When a mobile station is turned on, it easily discovers the base channel. The pseudo random bit sequence is used to avoid accidental confusion with frequency correction burst.

CCNA 1 Assignments Introduction To Networking (V5 + V6) Chapter 7 Answers 100% Correct

Hi! Before you start reading this post please make sure to leave a comment if you caught any error or missing Question. Also if you have a new question then please write down below in comment section. Following solution is for chapter 7 in CCNA 1 Introduction to Networking (v6 and lower) module given in Netacad Academy assignment.

1. Which two parts are components of an IPv4 address? (Choose two.)
  • subnet portion
  • network portion*
  • logical portion
  • host portion*
  • physical portion
  • broadcast portion

2. What is the purpose of the subnet mask in conjunction with an IP address?
  • to uniquely identify a host on a network
  • to identify whether the address is public or private
  • to determine the subnet to which the host belongs*
  • to mask the IP address to outsiders

3. A message is sent to all hosts on a remote network. Which type of message is it?
  • limited broadcast
  • multicast
  • directed broadcast*
  • unicast

4. Which three IP addresses are private ? (Choose three.)
  • 10.1.1.1*
  • 172.32.5.2
  • 192.167.10.10
  • 172.16.4.4 *
  • 192.168.5.5*
  • 224.6.6.6

5. Which of these addresses is the shortest abbreviation for the IP address:
3FFE:1044:0000:0000:00AB:0000:0000:0057?
  • 3FFE:1044::AB::57
  • 3FFE:1044::00AB::0057
  • 3FFE:1044:0:0:AB::57*
  • 3FFE:1044:0:0:00AB::0057
  • 3FFE:1044:0000:0000:00AB::57
  • 3FFE:1044:0000:0000:00AB::0057

6. What are two types of IPv6 unicast addresses? (Choose two.)
  • multicast
  • loopback*
  • link-local*
  • anycast
  • broadcast

7. An administrator wants to configure hosts to automatically assign IPv6 addresses to themselves by the use of Router Advertisement messages, but also to obtain the DNS server address from a DHCPv6 server. Which address assignment method should be configured?
  • SLAAC
  • stateless DHCPv6*
  • stateful DHCPv6
  • RA and EUI-64

8. Which two things can be determined by using the ping command? (Choose two.)
  • the number of routers between the source and destination device
  • the IP address of the router nearest the destination device
  • the average time it takes a packet to reach the destination and for the response to return to the source *
  • the destination device is reachable through the network*
  • the average time it takes each router in the path between source and destination to respond

9. What is indicated by a successful ping to the ::1 IPv6 address?
  • The host is cabled properly.
  • The default gateway address is correctly configured.
  • All hosts on the local link are available.
  • The link-local address is correctly configured.
  • IP is properly installed on the host.*

10. What is the binary equivalent of the decimal number 232?
  • 11101000*
  • 11000110
  • 10011000
  • 11110010

11. What field content is used by ICMPv6 to determine that a packet has expired?
  • TTL field
  • CRC field
  • Hop Limit field*
  • Time Exceeded field

12. Fill in the blank.
The binary equivalent of the decimal number 232 is 11101000

13. Match each description with an appropriate IP address. (Not all options are used.)
Introduction-to-networking-chapter-7-ccna-1
Click to View clear Image

14. How many bits are in an IPv4 address?
  • 32*
  • 64
  • 128
  • 256

15. What does the IP address 172.17.4.250/24 represent?
  • network address
  • multicast address
  • host address*
  • broadcast address

16. What subnet mask is represented by the slash notation /20?
  • 255.255.255.248
  • 255.255.224.0
  • 255.255.240.0*
  • 255.255.255.0
  • 255.255.255.192

17. What are three characteristics of multicast transmission? (Choose three.)
  • The source address of a multicast transmission is in the range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255.
  • A single packet can be sent to a group of hosts. *
  • Multicast transmission can be used by routers to exchange routing information. *
  • The range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255 is reserved to reach multicast groups on a local network.*
  • Computers use multicast transmission to request IPv4 addresses.
  • Multicast messages map lower layer addresses to upper layer addresses.

18. Which two IPv4 to IPv6 transition techniques manage the interconnection of IPv6 domains? (Choose two.)
  • trunking
  • dual stack*
  • encapsulation
  • tunneling*
  • multiplexing

19. What type of address is automatically assigned to an interface when IPv6 is enabled on that interface?
  • global unicast
  • link-local*
  • loopback
  • unique local

20. What are three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address? (Choose three.)
  • an interface ID that is used to identify the local network for a particular host
  • a global routing prefix that is used to identify the network portion of the address that has been provided by an ISP *
  • a subnet ID that is used to identify networks inside of the local enterprise site*
  • a global routing prefix that is used to identify the portion of the network address provided by a local administrator
  • an interface ID that is used to identify the local host on the network*

21. Which protocol supports Stateless Address Autoconfiguration (SLAAC) for dynamic assignment of IPv6 addresses to a host?
  • ARPv6
  • DHCPv6
  • ICMPv6*
  • UDP

22. What is the purpose of ICMP messages?
  • to inform routers about network topology changes
  • to ensure the delivery of an IP packet
  • to provide feedback of IP packet transmissions*
  • to monitor the process of a domain name to IP address resolution

23. A user is executing a tracert to a remote device. At what point would a router, which is in the path to the destination device, stop forwarding the packet?
  • when the router receives an ICMP Time Exceeded message
  • when the RTT value reaches zero
  • when the host responds with an ICMP Echo Reply message
  • when the value in the TTL field reaches zero*
  • when the values of both the Echo Request and Echo Reply messages reach zero

24. What is the decimal equivalent of the binary number 10010101?
  • 149*
  • 157
  • 168
  • 192

25. Fill in the blank.
The decimal equivalent of the binary number 10010101 is 149

26. Fill in the blank.
What is the decimal equivalent of the hex number 0x3F? 63

Now from Onward the rest of the MCQs is for the Lower version

1. What is a socket?
  • the combination of the source and destination IP address and source and destination Ethernet address
  • the combination of a source IP address and port number or a destination IP address and port number*
  • the combination of the source and destination sequence and acknowledgment numbers
  • the combination of the source and destination sequence numbers and port numbers

2. A host device sends a data packet to a web server via the HTTP protocol. What is used by the transport layer to pass the data stream to the proper application on the server?
  • sequence number
  • acknowledgment
  • source port number
  • destination port number*

3. Which scenario describes a function provided by the transport layer?
  • A student is using a classroom VoIP phone to call home. The unique identifier burned into the phone is a transport layer address used to contact another network device on the same network.
  • A student is playing a short web-based movie with sound. The movie and sound are encoded within the transport layer header.
  • A student has two web browser windows open in order to access two web sites. The transport layer ensures the correct web page is delivered to the correct browser window.*
  • A corporate worker is accessing a web server located on a corporate network. The transport layer formats the screen so the web page appears properly no matter what device is being used to view the web site.

4. What does a client application select for a TCP or UDP source port number?
  • a random value in the well-known port range
  • a random value in the range of the registered ports*
  • a predefined value in the well-known port range
  • a predefined value in the range of the registered ports

5. Which transport layer feature is used to guarantee session establishment?
  • UDP ACK flag
  • TCP 3-way handshake*
  • UDP sequence number
  • TCP port number

6. Which factor determines TCP window size?
  • the amount of data to be transmitted
  • the number of services included in the TCP segment
  • the amount of data the destination can process at one time*
  • the amount of data the source is capable of sending at one time

7. A PC is downloading a large file from a server. The TCP window is 1000 bytes. The server is sending the file using 100-byte segments. How many segments will the server send before it requires an acknowledgment from the PC?
  • 1 segment
  • 10 segments*
  • 100 segments
  • 1000 segments

8. What happens if the first packet of a TFTP transfer is lost?
  • The client will wait indefinitely for the reply.
  • The TFTP application will retry the request if a reply is not received.*
  • The next-hop router or the default gateway will provide a reply with an error code.
  • The transport layer will retry the query if a reply is not received.

9. A technician wishes to use TFTP to transfer a large file from a file server to a remote router. Which statement is correct about this scenario?
  • The file is segmented and then reassembled in the correct order by TCP.
  • The file is segmented and then reassembled in the correct order at the destination, if necessary, by the upper-layer protocol.*
  • The file is not segmented, because UDP is the transport layer protocol that is used by TFTP.
  • Large files must be sent by FTP not TFTP.

10. Fill in the blank using a number.
A total of 4 messages are exchanged during the TCP session termination process between the client and the server.

11. Match the characteristic to the protocol category. (Not all options are used.)
Introduction to Networking chapter 7 ccna 1
click image to view clear
TCP -> window size
TCP -> 3-way handshake
UDP -> connectionless
UDP -> best for VoIP
Both UDP and TCP -> checksum
Both UDP and TCP -> port number

12. A host device needs to send a large video file across the network while providing data communication to other users. Which feature will allow different communication streams to occur at the same time, without having a single data stream using all available bandwidth?
  • window size
  • multiplexing*
  • port numbers
  • acknowledgments

13. What is a beneficial feature of the UDP transport protocol?
  • acknowledgment of received data
  • fewer delays in transmission*
  • tracking of data segments using sequence numbers
  • the ability to retransmit lost data

14. What is the complete range of TCP and UDP well-known ports?
  • 0 to 255
  • 0 to 1023*
  • 256 – 1023
  • 1024 – 49151

15. Compared to UDP, what factor causes additional network overhead for TCP communication?
  • network traffic that is caused by retransmissions*
  • the identification of applications based on destination port numbers
  • the encapsulation into IP packets
  • the checksum error detection

16. Which two flags in the TCP header are used in a TCP three-way handshake to establish connectivity between two network devices? (Choose two.)
  • ACK*
  • FIN
  • PSH
  • RST
  • SYN*
  • URG

17. During a TCP session, a destination device sends an acknowledgment number to the source device. What does the acknowledgment number represent?
  • the total number of bytes that have been received
  • one number more than the sequence number
  • the next byte that the destination expects to receive*
  • the last sequence number that was sent by the source

18. Which two TCP header fields are used to confirm receipt of data?
  • FIN flag
  • SYN flag
  • checksum
  • sequence number *
  • acknowledgment number*

19. What does a client do when it has UDP datagrams to send?
  • It just sends the datagrams.*
  • It queries the server to see if it is ready to receive data.
  • It sends a simplified three-way handshake to the server.
  • It sends to the server a segment with the SYN flag set to synchronize the conversation.

20. Fill in the blank.
During a TCP session, the SYN flag is used by the client to request communication with the server.

21. Refer to the exhibit. Consider a datagram that originates on the PC and that is destined for the web server. Match the IP addresses and port numbers that are in that datagram to the description. (Not all options are used.)
Introduction-to-Networking-chapter-7-ccna-1
Click to View Image clear
Introduction-to-networking-ccna-1-chapter-7
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192.168.1.2 -> source IP address
192.168.2.2 -> destination IP address
2578 -> source port number
80 -> destination port number

22. Match each application to its connectionless or connection-oriented protocol.
Introduction-to-networking-chapter-7-ccna-1
click image to view clear

TCP -> HTTP
TCP -> FTP
TCP -> TELNET
UDP -> TFTP
UDP -> DHCP

CCNA 1 Assignments Introduction To Networking (V5 + V6) Chapter 6 Answers 100% correct

Hi! Before you start reading this post please make sure to leave a comment if you caught any error or missing Question. Also if you have a new question then please write down below in comment section. Following solution is for chapter 6 in CCNA 1 Introduction to Networking (v6 and lower) module given in Netacad Academy assignment.

1. What are two characteristics of IP? (Choose two.)
  • does not require a dedicated end-to-end connection *
  • operates independently of the network media*
  • retransmits packets if errors occur
  • re-assembles out of order packets into the correct order at the receiver end
  • guarantees delivery of packets

2. Which field in the IPv4 header is used to prevent a packet from traversing a network endlessly?
  • Time-to-Live*
  • Sequence Number
  • Acknowledgment Number
  • Differentiated Services

3. What is one advantage that the IPv6 simplified header offers over IPv4?
  • smaller-sized header
  • little requirement for processing checksums
  • smaller-sized source and destination IP addresses
  • efficient packet handling*

4. Refer to the exhibit. R1 receives a packet destined for the IP address 192.168.2.10. Out which interface will R1 forward the packet?
ccna-1-Assignments-introduction-to-networking-v5-v6-chapter-6-answer
Double click to View large Image
  • FastEthernet0/0
  • FastEthernet0/1
  • Serial0/0/0
  • Serial0/0/1*

5. What routing table entry has a next hop address associated with a destination network?
  • directly-connected routes
  • local routes
  • remote routes*
  • C and L source routes

6. Following default settings, what is the next step in the router boot sequence after the IOS loads from flash?
  • Perform the POST routine.
  • Locate and load the startup-config file from NVRAM.*
  • Load the bootstrap program from ROM.
  • Load the running-config file from RAM.

7. Which two pieces of information are in the RAM of a Cisco router during normal operation? (Choose two.)
  • Cisco IOS*
  • backup IOS file
  • IP routing table*
  • basic diagnostic software
  • startup configuration file

8. What is the purpose of the startup configuration file on a Cisco router?
  • to facilitate the basic operation of the hardware components of a device
  • to contain the commands that are used to initially configure a router on startup*
  • to contain the configuration commands that the router IOS is currently using
  • to provide a limited backup version of the IOS, in case the router cannot load the full featured IOS

9. Which characteristic describes an IPv6 enhancement over IPv4?
  • IPv6 addresses are based on 128-bit flat addressing as opposed to IPv4 which is based on 32-bit hierarchical addressing.
  • The IPv6 header is simpler than the IPv4 header is, which improves packet handling.*
  • Both IPv4 and IPv6 support authentication, but only IPv6 supports privacy capabilities.
  • The IPv6 address space is four times bigger than the IPv4 address space.

10. Match the command with the device mode at which the command is entered. (Not all options are used.)
ccna-1-Assignments-introduction-to-networking-v5-v6-chapter-6-answer
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11. Which characteristic of the network layer in the OSI model allows carrying packets for multiple types of communications among many hosts?
  • the de-encapsulation of headers from lower layers
  • the selection of paths for and direct packets toward the destination
  • the ability to operate without regard to the data that is carried in each packet*
  • the ability to manage the data transport between processes running on hosts

12. When a connectionless protocol is in use at a lower layer of the OSI model, how is missing data detected and retransmitted if necessary?
  • Connectionless acknowledgements are used to request retransmission.
  • Upper-layer connection-oriented protocols keep track of the data received and can request retransmission from the upper-level protocols on the sending host.*
  • Network layer IP protocols manage the communication sessions if connection-oriented transport services are not available.
  • The best-effort delivery process guarantees that all packets that are sent are received.

13. What IPv4 header field identifies the upper layer protocol carried in the packet?
  • Protocol*
  • Identification
  • Version
  • Differentiated Services

14. Refer to the exhibit. Which route from the PC1 routing table will be used to reach PC2?
ccna-1-Assignments-introduction-to-networking-v5-v6-chapter-6-answer
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A.
ccna-1-Assignments-introduction-to-networking-v5-v6-chapter-6-answer
B.
ccna-1-Assignments-introduction-to-networking-v5-v6-chapter-6-answer
C.
ccna-1-Assignments-introduction-to-networking-v5-v6-chapter-6-answer
D.
ccna-1-Assignments-introduction-to-networking-v5-v6-chapter-6-answer
Correct answer: A

15. What type of route is indicated by the code C in an IPv4 routing table on a Cisco router?
  • static route
  • default route
  • directly connected route*
  • dynamic route that is learned through EIGRP

16. Which statement describes a hardware feature of a Cisco 1941 router that has the default hardware configuration?
  • It does not have an AUX port.
  • It has three FastEthernet interfaces for LAN access.
  • It has two types of ports that can be used to access the console.*
  • It does not require a CPU because it relies on Compact Flash to run the IOS

17. What are two types of router interfaces? (Choose two.)
  • SVI
  • LAN*
  • DHCP
  • Telnet
  • WAN*

18. A router boots and enters setup mode. What is the reason for this?
  • The IOS image is corrupt.
  • Cisco IOS is missing from flash memory.
  • The configuration file is missing from NVRAM.*
  • The POST process has detected hardware failure.

19. Which three commands are used to set up secure access to a router through a connection to the console interface? (Choose three.)
  • interface fastethernet 0/0
  • line vty 0 4
  • line console 0*
  • enable secret cisco
  • login *
  • password cisco *

20. Open the PT Activity. The enable password on all devices is cisco.
Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
For what reason is the failure occurring?
  • PC1 has an incorrect default gateway configured.
  • SW1 does not have a default gateway configured.*
  • The IP address of SW1 is configured in a wrong subnet.
  • PC2 has an incorrect default gateway configured.

Now from Onward the rest of the MCQs is for the Lower version


1. When connectionless protocols are implemented at the lower layers of the OSI model, what are usually used to acknowledge the data receipt and request the retransmission of missing data?
  • connectionless acknowledgements
  • upper-layer connection-oriented protocols*
  • Network layer IP protocols
  • Transport layer UDP protocols

2. Why is NAT not needed in IPv6?
  • Because IPv6 has integrated security, there is no need to hide the IPv6 addresses of internal networks.?
  • Any host or user can get a public IPv6 network address because the number of available IPv6 addresses is extremely large.?*
  • The problems that are induced by NAT applications are solved because the IPv6 header improves packet handling by intermediate routers.?
  • The end-to-end connectivity problems that are caused by NAT are solved because the number of routes increases with the number of nodes that are connected to the Internet.

3. How do hosts ensure that their packets are directed to the correct network destination?
  • They have to keep their own local routing table that contains a route to the loopback interface, a local network route, and a remote default route.?*
  • They always direct their packets to the default gateway, which will be responsible for the packet delivery.
  • They search in their own local routing table for a route to the network destination address and pass this information to the default gateway.
  • They send a query packet to the default gateway asking for the best route.

4. During the process of forwarding traffic, what will the router do immediately after matching the destination IP address to a network on a directly connected routing table entry?
  • discard the traffic after consulting the route table
  • look up the next-hop address for the packet
  • switch the packet to the directly connected interface*
  • analyze the destination IP address

5. Which two interfaces will allow access via the VTY lines to configure the router? (Choose two.)
  • aux interfaces
  • LAN interfaces *
  • WAN interfaces*
  • console interfaces
  • USB interfaces

6. When would the Cisco IOS image held in ROM be used to boot the router?
  • during a file transfer operation
  • during a normal boot process
  • when the full IOS cannot be found*
  • when the running configuration directs the router to do this

7. Which three commands are used to set up a password for a person who attaches a cable to a new router so that an initial configuration can be performed? (Choose three.)
  • interface fastethernet 0/0
  • line vty 0 4
  • line console 0*
  • enable secret cisco
  • login *
  • password cisco*

8. Which command displays a summary chart of all router interfaces, their IP addresses, and their current operational status?
  • show ip route
  • show version
  • show interfaces
  • show ip interface brief*

9. A computer has to send a packet to a destination host in the same LAN. How will the packet be sent?
  • The packet will be sent to the default gateway first, and then, depending on the response from the gateway, it may be sent to the destination host.
  • The packet will be sent directly to the destination host.*
  • The packet will first be sent to the default gateway, and then from the default gateway it will be sent directly to the destination host.
  • The packet will be sent only to the default gateway.

10. Fill in the blank. In a router, ROM is the nonvolatile memory where the diagnostic software, the bootup instructions, and a limited IOS are stored.

11. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question or complete the task. Does the router have enough RAM and flash memory to support the new IOS?
  • The router has enough RAM and flash memory for the IOS upgrade.*
  • The router has enough RAM, but needs more flash memory for the IOS upgrade.
  • The router has enough flash memory, but needs more RAM for the IOS upgrade.
  • The router needs more RAM and more flash memory for the IOS upgrade.

12. Match field names to the IP header where they would be found. (Not all options are used)
ccna-1-Assignments-introduction-to-networking-v5-v6-chapter-6-answer
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Sort elements
IP v4 Header (A) -> Flags (A)
IP v4 Header (B) -> Total Length (B)
IP v6 Header (C) ->Traffic Class (C)
IP v6 Header (D) -> Flow Label (D)

13. Which IPv4 header field is responsible for defining the priority of the packet?
  • flow label
  • flags
  • differentiated services*
  • traffic class

14. What is a service provided by the Flow Label field of the IPv6 header?
  • It limits the lifetime of a packet.
  • It identifies the total length of the IPv6 packet.
  • It classifies packets for traffic congestion control.
  • It informs network devices to maintain the same path for real-time application packets.*

15. Which two commands can be used on a Windows host to display the routing table? (Choose two.)
  • netstat -s
  • route print*
  • show ip route
  • netstat -r*
  • tracert

16. A technician is configuring a router that is actively running on the network. Suddenly, power to the router is lost. If the technician has not saved the configuration, which two types of information will be lost? (Choose two.)
  • Cisco IOS image file
  • routing table*
  • bootstrap file
  • ARP cache*
  • startup configuration

17. Which two files, if found, are copied into RAM as a router with the default configuration register setting boots up? (Choose two.)
  • running configuration
  • IOS image file *
  • startup configuration*
  • POST diagnostics

18. After troubleshooting a router, the network administrator wants to save the router configuration so that it will be used automatically the next time that the router reboots. What command should be issued?
  • copy running-config flash
  • copy startup-config flash
  • copy running-config startup-config *
  • reload*
  • copy startup-config running-config

19. Which statement about router interfaces is true?
  • Router LAN interfaces are not activated by default, but router WAN interfaces are.
  • Once the no shutdown command is given, a router interface is active and operational.*
  • Commands that apply an IP address and subnet mask to an interface are entered in global configuration mode.
  • A configured and activated router interface must be connected to another device in order to operate.*

20. A technician is manually configuring a computer with the necessary IP parameters to communicate over the corporate network. The computer already has an IP address, a subnet mask, and a DNS server. What else has to be configured for Internet access?
  • the WINS server address
  • the default gateway address*
  • the MAC address
  • the domain name of the organization

22. Refer to the exhibit. Fill in the blank.
ccna-1-Assignments-introduction-to-networking-v5-v6-chapter-6-answer
Double click to View large Image
A packet leaving PC-1 has to traverse 3 hops to reach PC-4.?

23. Refer to the exhibit. Match the packets with their destination IP address to the exiting interfaces on the router. (Not all targets are used.)
ccna-1-Assignments-introduction-to-networking-v5-v6-chapter-6-answer
Double click to View large Image
ccna-1-Assignments-introduction-to-networking-v5-v6-chapter-6-answer
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24. Match the configuration mode with the command that is available in that mode. (Not all options are used.)
ccna-1-Assignments-introduction-to-networking-v5-v6-chapter-6-answer
Double click to View large Image
Sort elements
enable -> R1>
copy running-config startup-config -> R1#
login -> R1(config-line)#
interface fastethernet 0/0 -> R1(config)#

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CCNA 1 Assignments Introduction To Networking (V5 + V6) Chapter 5 Answers 100% correct

Hi! Before you start reading this post please make sure to leave a comment if you caught any error or missing Question. Also if you have a new question then please write down below in comment section. Following solution is for chapter 5 in CCNA 1 Introduction to Networking (v6 and lower) module given in Netacad Academy assignment.

1. What are the two sizes (minimum and maximum) of an Ethernet frame? (Choose two.)
  • 56 bytes
  • 64 bytes*
  • 128 bytes
  • 1024 bytes
  • 1518 bytes*

2. What happens to runt frames received by a Cisco Ethernet switch?
  • The frame is dropped.*
  • The frame is returned to the originating network device.
  • The frame is broadcast to all other devices on the same network.
  • The frame is sent to the default gateway.

3. What statement describes Ethernet?
  • It defines the most common LAN type in the world.*
  • It is the required Layer 1 and 2 standard for Internet communication.
  • It defines a standard model used to describe how networking works.
  • It connects multiple sites such as routers located in different countries.

4. Which two statements describe features or functions of the logical link control sublayer in Ethernet standards? (Choose two.)
  • Logical link control is implemented in software.*
  • Logical link control is specified in the IEEE 802.3 standard.
  • The LLC sublayer adds a header and a trailer to the data.
  • The data link layer uses LLC to communicate with the upper layers of the protocol suite.*
  • The LLC sublayer is responsible for the placement and retrieval of frames on and off the media.

5. Which statement is true about MAC addresses?
  • MAC addresses are implemented by software.
  • A NIC only needs a MAC address if connected to a WAN.
  • The first three bytes are used by the vendor assigned OUI.*
  • The ISO is responsible for MAC addresses regulations.

6. What statement describes a characteristic of MAC addresses?
  • They must be globally unique.*
  • They are only routable within the private network.
  • They are added as part of a Layer 3 PDU.
  • They have a 32-bit binary value

7. What addressing information is recorded by a switch to build its MAC address table?
  • the destination Layer 3 address of incoming packets
  • the destination Layer 2 address of outgoing frames
  • the source Layer 3 address of outgoing packets
  • the source Layer 2 address of incoming frames*

8. Which destination address is used in an ARP request frame?
  • 0.0.0.0
  • 255.255.255.255
  • FFFF.FFFF.FFFF*
  • 127.0.0.1
  • 01-00-5E-00-AA-23

9. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows a small switched network and the contents of the MAC address table of the switch. PC1 has sent a frame addressed to PC3. What will the switch do with the frame?
Introduction-to-Networking-chapter-5-ccna-1
Double click to view lmage large


  • The switch will discard the frame.
  • The switch will forward the frame only to port 2.
  • The switch will forward the frame to all ports except port 4.*
  • The switch will forward the frame to all ports.
  • The switch will forward the frame only to ports 1 and 3.

10. Which switching method uses the CRC value in a frame?
  • cut-through
  • fast-forward
  • fragment-free
  • store-and-forward*

11.Which statement describes the treatment of ARP requests on the local link?
  • They must be forwarded by all routers on the local network.
  • They are received and processed by every device on the local network.*
  • They are dropped by all switches on the local network.
  • They are received and processed only by the target device.

12. Fill in the blank.
On a Cisco switch, port-based memory buffering is used to buffer frames in queues linked to specific incoming and outgoing ports.

13. Fill in the blank.
ARP spoofing is a technique that is used to send fake ARP messages to other hosts in the LAN. The aim is to associate IP addresses to the wrong MAC addresses.

14. Fill in the blank.
A collision fragment, also known as a RUNT frame, is a frame of fewer than 64 bytes in length.

15. What is the minimum Ethernet frame size that will not be discarded by the receiver as a runt frame?
  • 64 bytes*
  • 512 bytes
  • 1024 bytes
  • 1500 bytes

16. What are two potential network problems that can result from ARP operation? (Choose two.)
  • Manually configuring static ARP associations could facilitate ARP poisoning or MAC address spoofing.
  • On large networks with low bandwidth, multiple ARP broadcasts could cause data communication delays. *
  • Network attackers could manipulate MAC address and IP address mappings in ARP messages with the intent of intercepting network traffic.*
  • Large numbers of ARP request broadcasts could cause the host MAC address table to overflow and prevent the host from communicating on the network.
  • Multiple ARP replies result in the switch MAC address table containing entries that match the MAC addresses of hosts that are connected to the relevant switch port

17. What is the aim of an ARP spoofing attack?
  • to associate IP addresses to the wrong MAC address*
  • to overwhelm network hosts with ARP requests
  • to flood the network with ARP reply broadcasts
  • to fill switch MAC address tables with bogus addresses

18. What is a characteristic of port-based memory buffering?
  • Frames in the memory buffer are dynamically linked to destination ports.
  • All frames are stored in a common memory buffer.
  • Frames are buffered in queues linked to specific ports.*
  • All ports on a switch share a single memory buffer.

19. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 issues an ARP request because it needs to send a packet to PC2. In this scenario, what will happen next?

Introduction-to-networking-ccna-1-chapter-5-answer-keys


  • PC2 will send an ARP reply with its MAC address.*
  • RT1 will send an ARP reply with its Fa0/0 MAC address.
  • RT1 will send an ARP reply with the PC2 MAC address.
  • SW1 will send an ARP reply with the PC2 MAC address.
  • SW1 will send an ARP reply with its Fa0/1 MAC address.

20. What is auto-MDIX?
  • a type of Cisco switch
  • an Ethernet connector type
  • a type of port on a Cisco switch
  • a feature that detects Ethernet cable type*

21. Match the characteristic to the forwarding method. (Not all options are used.)
ccna-1-chapter-5-introduction-to-networking-keys
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Sort elements
cut-through (A) -> low latency (A)*
cut-through (B) -> may forward runt frames (B)*
cut-through (C) -> begins forwarding when the destination address is received (C)*
store-and-forward (D) -> always stores the entire frame (D)*
store-and-forward (E) -> checks the CRC before forwarding (E)*
store-and-forward (F) -> checks the frame length before forwarding (F)*

22. True or False?
When a device is sending data to another device on a remote network, the Ethernet frame is sent to the MAC address of the default gateway.
  • true*
  • false

23. The ARP table in a switch maps which two types of address together?
  • Layer 3 address to a Layer 2 address*
  • Layer 3 address to a Layer 4 address
  • Layer 4 address to a Layer 2 address
  • Layer 2 address to a Layer 4 address

24. Refer to the exhibit.A switch with a default configuration connects four hosts. The ARP table for host A is shown. What happens when host A wants to send an IP packet to host D?
Introduction-to-networking-chapter-5-solution
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  • Host A sends an ARP request to the MAC address of host D.
  • Host D sends an ARP request to host A.
  • Host A sends out the packet to the switch. The switch sends the packet only to the host D, which in turn responds.
  • Host A sends out a broadcast of FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF. Every other host connected to the switch receives the broadcast and host D responds with its MAC address.*

25. Refer to the exhibit. The switches are in their default configuration. Host A needs to communicate with host D, but host A does not have the MAC address for its default gateway. Which network hosts will receive the ARP request sent by host A?
CCNA-1-Chapter-5-Introduction-to-Networking-solution
CCNA 1 Chapter 5


  • only host D
  • only router R1
  • only hosts A, B, and C
  • only hosts A, B, C, and D
  • only hosts B and C
  • only hosts B, C, and router R1*
Now from Onward the rest of the MCQs is for the Lower version

1. What is the Layer 2 multicast MAC address that corresponds to the Layer 3 IPv4 multicast address 224.139.34.56?
  • 00-00-00-0B-22-38
  • 01-00-5E-0B-22-38*
  • 01-5E-00-0B-22-38
  • FE-80-00-0B-22-38
  • FF-FF-FF-0B-22-38


2. Which two statements are correct about MAC and IP addresses during data transmission if NAT is not involved? (Choose two.)
  • A packet that has crossed four routers has changed the destination IP address four times.
  • Destination MAC addresses will never change in a frame that goes across seven routers.
  • Destination and source MAC addresses have local significance and change every time a frame goes from one LAN to another. *
  • Destination IP addresses in a packet header remain constant along the entire path to a target host.*
  • Every time a frame is encapsulated with a new destination MAC address, a new destination IP address is needed.

3. What is a characteristic of a contention-based access method?
  • It processes more overhead than the controlled access methods do.
  • It has mechanisms to track the turns to access the media.
  • It is a nondeterministic method.*
  • It scales very well under heavy media use.


4. What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?
  • is used as a padding for data
  • is used for timing synchronization*
  • is used to identify the source address
  • is used to identify the destination address


5. A host is trying to send a packet to a device on a remote LAN segment, but there are currently no mappings in its ARP cache. How will the device obtain a destination MAC address?
  • It will send an ARP request for the MAC address of the destination device.
  • It will send an ARP request for the MAC address of the default gateway. *
  • It will send the frame and use its own MAC address as the destination. *
  • It will send the frame with a broadcast MAC address.
  • It will send a request to the DNS server for the destination MAC address.

6. What are two features of ARP? (Choose two.)
  • If a host is ready to send a packet to a local destination device and it has the IP address but not the MAC address of the destination, it generates an ARP broadcast.*
  • An ARP request is sent to all devices on the Ethernet LAN and contains the IP address of the destination host and its multicast MAC address.
  • When a host is encapsulating a packet into a frame, it refers to the MAC address table to determine the mapping of IP addresses to MAC addresses.
  • If no device responds to the ARP request, then the originating node will broadcast the data packet to all devices on the network segment.
  • If a device receiving an ARP request has the destination IPv4 address, it responds with an ARP reply.*

7. When would a switch record multiple entries for a single switch port in its MAC address table?
  • when a router is connected to the switch port
  • when multiple ARP broadcasts have been forwarded
  • when another switch is connected to the switch port*
  • when the switch is configured for Layer 3 switching

8. Which two statements describe a fixed configuration Ethernet switch? (Choose two.)
  • The switch cannot be configured with multiple VLANs.
  • An SVI cannot be configured on the switch.
  • A fixed configuration switch may be stackable. *
  • The number of ports on the switch cannot be increased.*
  • The port density of the switch is determined by the Cisco IOS.

9. How does adding an Ethernet line card affect the form factor of a switch?
  • by increasing the back plane switching speed
  • by expanding the port density*
  • by making the switch stackable
  • by expanding the NVRAM capacity

10. A network administrator is connecting two modern switches using a straight-through cable. The switches are new and have never been configured. Which three statements are correct about the final result of the connection? (Choose three.)
  • The link between the switches will work at the fastest speed that is supported by both switches. *
  • The link between switches will work as full-duplex.*
  • If both switches support different speeds, they will each work at their own fastest speed.
  • The auto-MDIX feature will configure the interfaces eliminating the need for a crossover cable.*
  • The connection will not be possible unless the administrator changes the cable to a crossover cable.
  • The duplex capability has to be manually configured because it cannot be negotiated.

11. A Layer 2 switch is used to switch incoming frames from a 1000BASE-T port to a port connected to a 100Base-T network. Which method of memory buffering would work best for this task?
  • port-based buffering
  • level 1 cache buffering
  • shared memory buffering*
  • fixed configuration buffering

12. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instruction and then answer the question.
What destination address will PC1 include in the destination address field of the Ethernet frame that it sends to PC2?

  • 192.168.0.17
  • 192.168.0.34
  • 0030.a3e5.0401*
  • 00e0.b0be.8014
  • 0007.ec35.a5c6

13. Which address or combination of addresses does a Layer 3 switch use to make forwarding decisions?
  • MAC and IP addresses*
  • MAC address only
  • MAC and port addresses
  • port address only
  • IP address only

14. Which address or combination of addresses does a Layer 3 switch use to make forwarding decisions?
  • IP address only
  • port address only
  • MAC address only
  • MAC and port addresses
  • MAC and IP addresses*

15. What statement illustrates a drawback of the CSMA/CD access method?
  • Deterministic media access protocols slow network performance.
  • It is more complex than non-deterministic protocols.
  • Collisions can decrease network performance.*
  • CSMA/CD LAN technologies are only available at slower speeds than other LAN technologies.
  • The binary number 0000 1010 can be expressed as “A” in hexadecimal.

16.The binary number 0000 1010 can be expressed as “A” in hexadecimal. Match the seven fields of an Ethernet frame to their respective contents. (Not all options are used.)
Introduction-to-networking-ccna-1-chapter-5
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Sort elements

Start Frame Delimiter -> Field 2*
Source MAC Address -> Field 4*
Encapsulated Data -> Field 6*
Preamble -> Beginning of frame – Field 1*
Destination MAC Address -> Field 3*
Length/Type -> Field 5*
Frame Check Sequence -> End of frame – Field 7

17. A network administrator issues the following commands on a Layer 3 switch:
What is the administrator configuring?
  • a Cisco Express Forwarding instance
  • a routed port*
  • a trunk interface
  • a switched virtual interface

18. Launch PT. Hide and Save PT
PT-activity-in-chapter-5-ccna-1-introduction-to-networking
Double click to view large image

Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instruction and then answer the question. What destination address will PC1 include in the destination address field of the Ethernet frame that it sends to PC2?

  • 00e0.b0be.8014
  • 0030.a3e5.0401*
  • 192.168.0.34
  • 192.168.0.17
  • 0007.ec35.a5c6

19. How does adding an Ethernet line card affect the form factor of a switch?
  • by increasing the back plane switching speed
  • by expanding the port density*
  • by expanding the NVRAM capacity
  • by making the switch stackable

20. What statement illustrates a drawback of the CSMA/CD access method?
  • Collisions can decrease network performance.*
  • Deterministic media access protocols slow network performance.
  • CSMA/CD LAN technologies are only available at slower speeds than other LAN technologies.
  • It is more complex than non-deterministic protocols.

CCNA 1 Assignments Introduction To Networking (V5 + V6) Chapter 4 Answers 100% correct

Hi! Before you start reading this post please make sure to leave a comment if you caught any error or missing Question. Also if you have a new question then please write down below in comment section. Following solution is for chapter 4 in CCNA 1 Introduction to Networking (v6 and lower) module given in Netacad Academy assignment.

1. Why are two strands of fiber used for a single fiber optic connection?
  • The two strands allow the data to travel for longer distances without degrading.
  • They prevent crosstalk from causing interference on the connection.
  • They increase the speed at which the data can travel.
  • They allow for full-duplex connectivity.*

2. Which type of connector does a network interface card use?
  • DIN
  • PS-2
  • RJ-11
  • RJ-45*

3. What is one advantage of using fiber optic cabling rather than copper cabling?
  • It is usually cheaper than copper cabling.
  • It is able to be installed around sharp bends.
  • It is easier to terminate and install than copper cabling.
  • It is able to carry signals much farther than copper cabling.*

4. Refer to the exhibit. What is wrong with the displayed termination?
[I MAGE]
  • The woven copper braid should not have been removed.
  • The wrong type of connector is being used.
  • The untwisted length of each wire is too long.*
  • The wires are too thick for the connector that is used

5. Refer to the exhibit. The PC is connected to the console port of the switch. All the other connections are made through FastEthernet links. Which types of UTP cables can be used to connect the devices?
Introduction-to-Networking-chapter-1

  • 1 – rollover, 2 – crossover, 3 – straight-through
  • 1 – rollover, 2 – straight-through, 3 – crossover*
  • 1 – crossover, 2 – straight-through, 3 – rollover
  • 1 – crossover, 2 – rollover, 3 – straight-through

6. What technique is used with UTP cable to help protect against signal interference from crosstalk?
  • twisting the wires together into pairs*
  • wrapping a foil shield around the wire pairs
  • encasing the cables within a flexible plastic sheath
  • terminating the cable with special grounded connectors

7. Which characteristic describes crosstalk?
  • the distortion of the network signal from fluorescent lighting
  • the distortion of the transmitted messages from signals carried in adjacent wires*
  • the weakening of the network signal over long cable lengths
  • the loss of wireless signal over excessive distance from the access point

8. A network administrator notices that some newly installed Ethernet cabling is carrying corrupt and distorted data signals. The new cabling was installed in the ceiling close to fluorescent lights and electrical equipment. Which two factors may interfere with the copper cabling and result in signal distortion and data corruption? (Choose two.)
  • EMI*
  • crosstalk
  • RFI*
  • signal attenuation
  • extended length of cabling

9. What are two reasons for physical layer protocols to use frame encoding techniques? (Choose two.)
  • to reduce the number of collisions on the media
  • to distinguish data bits from control bits*
  • to provide better media error correction
  • to identify where the frame starts and ends*
  • to increase the media throughput
  • to distinguish data from control information

10. What is indicated by the term throughput?
  • the guaranteed data transfer rate offered by an ISP
  • the capacity of a particular medium to carry data
  • the measure of the usable data transferred across the media
  • the measure of the bits transferred across the media over a given period of time*
  • the time it takes for a message to get from sender to receiver

11. What acronym is used to reference the data link sublayer that identifies the network layer protocol encapsulated in the frame? LLC

12. What is the function of the CRC value that is found in the FCS field of a frame?
  • to verify the integrity of the received frame*
  • to verify the physical address in the frame
  • to verify the logical address in the frame
  • to compute the checksum header for the data field in the frame

13. What is the definition of bandwidth?
  • the measure of usable data transferred over a given period of time
  • the speed at which bits travel on the network
  • the measure of the transfer of bits across the media over a given period of time
  • the amount of data that can flow from one place to another in a given amount of time*

14. What is a role of the Logical Link Control sublayer?
  • to provide data link layer addressing
  • to provide access to various Layer 1 network technologies
  • to define the media access processes performed by network hardware
  • to mark frames to identify the network layer protocol being carried*

15. As data travels on the media in a stream of 1s and 0s how does a receiving node identify the beginning and end of a frame?
  • The transmitting node inserts start and stop bits into the frame.*
  • The transmitting node sends a beacon to notify that a data frame is attached.
  • The receiving node identifies the beginning of a frame by seeing a physical address.
  • The transmitting node sends an out-of-band signal to the receiver about the beginning of the frame

16. What is contained in the trailer of a data-link frame?
  • logical address
  • physical address
  • data
  • error detection*

17. Which method of data transfer allows information to be sent and received at the same time?
  • full duplex*
  • half duplex
  • multiplex
  • simplex

18. Which statement describes an extended star topology?
  • End devices connect to a central intermediate device, which in turn connects to other central intermediate devices.*
  • End devices are connected together by a bus and each bus connects to a central intermediate device.
  • Each end system is connected to its respective neighbor via an intermediate device.
  • All end and intermediate devices are connected in a chain to each other.

19. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the media access control methods that are used by the networks in the exhibit?

Introduction-to-networking-ccna-1


  • All three networks use CSMA/CA
  • None of the networks require media access control.
  • Network 1 uses CSMA/CD and Network 3 uses CSMA/CA.*
  • Network 1 uses CSMA/CA and Network 2 uses CSMA/CD.
  • Network 2 uses CSMA/CA and Network 3 uses CSMA/CD.

20. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for specifying the encapsulation method used for specific types of media?
  • application
  • transport
  • data link*
  • physical

21. A network administrator is designing the layout of a new wireless network. Which three areas of concern should be accounted for when building a wireless network? (Choose three.)
  • mobility options
  • security *
  • interference *
  • coverage area*
  • extensive cabling
  • packet collision

22. What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?

  • The logical topology is always the same as the physical topology.
  • Physical topologies are concerned with how a network transfers frames.
  • Physical topologies display the IP addressing scheme of each network.
  • Logical topologies refer to how a network transfers data between devices.*

23. What are two services performed by the data link layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
  • It encrypts data packets.
  • It determines the path to forward packets.
  • It accepts Layer 3 packets and encapsulates them into frames. *
  • It provides media access control and performs error detection.*
  • It monitors the Layer 2 communication by building a MAC address table.
24. The term bandwidth indicates the capacity of a medium to carry data and it is typically measured in kilobits per second (kb/s) or megabits per second (Mb/s).

25. Match the characteristics to the correct type of fiber. (Not all options are used.)
Introduction-to-networking-ccna-1-chapter-4
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Multimode Fiber
LED as light source*
several paths of light into the fiber*
generally used with LANs*

Single-mode Fiber
only one ray of light into the fiber*
generally used for campus backbone*
laser as light source*


26. Fill in the blank.
A physical topology that is a variation or combination of a point-to-point, hub and spoke, or mesh topology is commonly known as a hybrid topology.

27. What are two examples of hybrid topologies? (Choose two.)
  • point-to-point
  • partial mesh*
  • extended star*
  • hub and spoke
  • full mesh

Now from Onward the rest of the MCQs is for the Lower version


1. How is the magnetic field cancellation effect enhanced in UTP cables?
  • by increasing the thickness of the PVC sheath that encases all the wires
  • by increasing and varying the number of twists in each wire pair*
  • by increasing the thickness of the copper wires
  • by decreasing the number of wires that are used to carry data


2. Which statement is correct about multimode fiber?

  • Multimode fiber cables carry signals from multiple connected sending devices.
  • Multimode fiber commonly uses a laser as a light source.
  • SC-SC patch cords are used with multimode fiber cables.*

3. Which statement describes signaling at the physical layer?

  • Sending the signals asynchronously means that they are transmitted without a clock signal.*
  • In signaling, a 1 always represents voltage and a 0 always represents the absence of voltage.
  • Wireless encoding includes sending a series of clicks to delimit the frames.
  • Signaling is a method of converting a stream of data into a predefined code

4. The throughput of a FastEthernet network is 80 Mb/s. The traffic overhead for establishing 
sessions, acknowledgments, and encapsulation is 15 Mb/s for the same time period. What is the goodput for this network?
  • 15 Mb/s
  • 95 Mb/s
  • 55 Mb/s
  • 65 Mb/s*
  • 80 Mb/s


5. What are two characteristics of 802.11 wireless networks? (Choose two.)

  • They use CSMA/CA technology.*
  • They use CSMA/CD technology.
  • They are collision-free networks.
  • Stations can transmit at any time.
  • Collisions can exist in the networks.*

6. What is the purpose of the FCS field in a frame?
  • to obtain the MAC address of the sending node
  • to verify the logical address of the sending node
  • to compute the CRC header for the data field
  • to determine if errors occurred in the transmission and reception*

7. A network administrator is required to upgrade wireless access to end users in a building. To provide data rates up to 1.3 Gb/s and still be backward compatible with older devices, which wireless standard should be implemented?
  • 802.11n
  • 802.11ac*
  • 802.11g
  • 802.11b

8. What is one main characteristic of the data link layer?
  • It generates the electrical or optical signals that represent the 1 and 0 on the media.
  • It converts a stream of data bits into a predefined code.
  • It shields the upper layer protocol from being aware of the physical medium to be used in the communication.*
  • It accepts Layer 3 packets and decides the path by which to forward a frame to a host on a remote network.

9. Fill in the blank with a number.
10,000,000,000 b/s can also be written as 10 Gb/s.

10. Match the steps to the physical layer operations that occur when data is sent from one node and received at another node.
Refer to the exhibit.
Introduction-to-networking-ccna-1-chapter-4
Double click to view large image

11. Which statement describes the media access control methods that are used by the networks in the exhibit?
  • All three networks use CSMA/CA
  • None of the networks require media access control.
  • Network 1 uses CSMA/CD and Network 3 uses CSMA/CA.*
  • Network 1 uses CSMA/CA and Network 2 uses CSMA/CD.
  • Network 2 uses CSMA/CA and Network 3 uses CSMA/CD.